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QUESTION 1 OF 2

A 43-year-old woman presents with a progressive flexion contracture of her right index finger. She states that her father has a similar problem. She underwent corrective surgery 5 years ago. On examination, there are flexion contractures of the MCPJ (70 degrees, uncorrectible) and PIPJ (10 degrees, passively correctible). A mature scar is visible.
What is the most appropriate management plan in the first instance?

QUESTION ID: 1073

1. A. Collagenase clostridium histolyticum
2. B. Dermofasciectomy
3. C. Percutaneous needle fasciotomy
4. D. Limited fasciectomy
5. E. Observation and review in 4-6 months

QUESTION 2 OF 2

A patient presents with a flexion contracture of their ring finger secondary to Dupuytren’s disease. The MCPJ is flexed to 40°and the PIPJ is flexed to 20°.
Which of the following structures is least likely to be affected?

QUESTION ID: 1074

1. A. Grayson’s ligament
2. B. Lateral band
3. C. Lateral digital sheet
4. D. Pretendinous band
5. E. Spiral band