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QUESTION 1 OF 3

You are starting night shift and received a call from a ward nurse about a 9-year-old boy who had open reduction of a Grade 3 Gartland supracondylar elbow fracture earlier than day. The nurse tells you the boy appears anxious and would like you to prescribe stronger and regular morphine.
Your next course of action will be to:

 

QUESTION ID: 1044

1. Arrange theatre for urgent surgical decompression of compartment syndrome
2. Ask your junior member to review and prescribe
3. Prescribe the requested analgesia electronically to avoid delay
4. Reassure that pain is expected and add muscle relaxant to calm the child
5. Review the child urgently and remove splint and dressing

QUESTION 2 OF 3

A 7-year-old child sustains a lateral mass fracture of the right elbow.
What is the most likely late onset functional deficit?

QUESTION ID: 1068

1. A. Inability to abduct the thumb
2. B. Inability to adduct the thumb
3. C. Loss of forearm supination
4. D. Loss of thumb IPJ flexion
5. E. Weakness of wrist extension

QUESTION 3 OF 3

A 13 years old male presented to the ED with an ankle fracture following a football injury. The foot is neurovascularly intact,an isolated closed injury.A CT was performed (Figure 1).

Hussian .png

 

Figure 1.CT scan coronal and sagittal views
Concerning this injury all the following statements are TRUE except

QUESTION ID: 1251

1. An epiphyseal screw is used in cases where there is displacement beyond 2 mm and should be placed parallel to the physis
2. Angular deformity can be a consequence of the potential ensuing growth arrest of the fibula
3. Angular deformity can be a consequence of the potential ensuing growth arrest of the tibia
4. Because of the pattern of distal tibia physeal closure patients presentings with such fractures are generally older than those presenting with a Tillaux fracture
5. If total growth arrest occurs in this patient then he would have a leg length discrepancy of 9-12 mm according to the rule of thumb for growth.