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QUESTION 1 OF 2

A 60-year-old fit and healthy lady presents with severe shoulder pain. X-ray reveals severe bipolar glenohumeral joint osteoarthritis. There is less than 10° of glenoid retroversion and the rotator cuff, though degenerate, is structurally intact.
The most appropriate intervention is:

QUESTION ID: 1070

1. A. Anatomic total shoulder replacement
2. B. Gleno humeral joint steroid injection
3. C. Reverse polarity total shoulder replacement
4. D. Stemmed hemiarthroplasty
5. E. Surface replacement hemiarthroplasty

QUESTION 2 OF 2

36.A 50-year-old woman presents with a three-week history of severe shoulder pain.  Radiographs show a large calcific area under the acromion. Range of movement is very limited because of the pain.
What will be the most appropriate initial management?

QUESTION ID: 3197

1. Arthroscopic subacromial decompression
2. Extracorporeal shock wave therapy
3. Immediate open excision
4. Injection of steroid plus physiotherapy
5. Platelet rich plasma injection