Previous
Next

QUESTION 1 OF 4

A 20-year-old athlete attends clinic after an ACL reconstruction using hamstring graft 6 weeks ago. He reports hypersensitivity and numbness at the hamstring graft harvest site related to damage of infrapatellar branch of the saphenous nerve (IPBSN).
Which of the following statements is true regarding the risk of damage to IPBSN?

QUESTION ID: 1186

1. Horizontal incision is better than oblique incision for reducing the risk of nerve injury
2. Risk is higher in male
3. Risk is higher in younger age
4. The IPBSN is closer to semitendinosus compared to gracilis tendon
5. Vertical incision has higher risk of injury compared to oblique incision

QUESTION 2 OF 4

A 30-year football player attends your sports knee clinic to discuss treatment options for ACL deficient right knee.
Which of the following statements is false when counselling about graft options for ACL reconstruction?

QUESTION ID: 1187

1. BPTB graft has a higher risk of donor site morbidity compared to HT
2. BPTB graft is useful for double bundle ACL reconstruction
3. Irradiated allografts have no donor site morbidity but are more likely to fail
4. Quadrupled HT graft has a higher tensile strength compared to intact native ACL
5. Risk of damage to saphenous nerve is highest with HT graft harvest

QUESTION 3 OF 4

A professional footballer sustains a multi-ligament knee injury. Initial assessment shows intact distal neurovascular status. You are considering a PCL reconstruction along with dealing other ligament injuries.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding PCL reconstruction technique?

QUESTION ID: 1188

1. Acute “killer turn” of the graft is encountered in transtibial technique
2. Direct bone-to-bone healing is seen in transtibial technique
3. Open tibial inlay PCL reconstruction results in the formation of a long oblique tibial tunnel
4. Single bundle PCL reconstruction is tensioned in extension or 20 degrees of flexion
5. Transtibial technique allows for anatomic placement of the PCL graft at its tibial attachment

QUESTION 4 OF 4

A 40-year-old man sustains a direct blow injury to knee (‘dashboard type’) resulting in a painful swollen knee. The knee feels stable on varus and valgus stress test with posterior sag detected on posterior drawer test.
All of the following statements are correct except regarding non-operative management of isolated PCL injuries?

QUESTION ID: 1189

1. Early rehabilitation and bracing of isolated PCL injuries can result in successful return to sports
2. Hamstring exercises should be avoided in the early stages
3. Patella mobilisations performed to minimise quadriceps inhibition
4. Quadriceps strengthening exercises should be encouraged
5. Range of movement knee exercise in supine position in early stages