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QUESTION 1 OF 1

30.A 40-year-old male diabetic who six weeks ago had shoulder arthroscopy for a labral tear, presents with a 3-week history of severe pain in the same shoulder. There is significant wasting of the supra and infraspinatus fossae. An almost full passive ROM is possible.
Of the following options, which is the most likely diagnosis?

QUESTION ID: 3189

1. Adhesive capsulitis
2. Cervical discs prolapse.
3. Entrapment neuropathy in the supra-glenoid notch
4. Parsonage -Turner syndrome
5. Septic arthritis