Principles of management of deformity of the spine

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QUESTION 1 OF 3

A 68 year old female sustains a osteoporotic fracture . After failure of conservative treatment, she undergoes vertebroplasty.
Which of the following statements  is a correct regarding this procedure?

QUESTION ID: 59

1. A. Chemical destruction of the nerve endings due to chemical composition of the cement has been proposed
2. B. Has more advantages as compared to kyphoplasty.
3. C. Indicated in patient with ongoing pain after recent unhealed fracture, pain confirmed at the level of fracture by examination and MRI showing low signal on T2
4. D. It works by destruction of the nerve endings due to extreme low temperature reached by the polymerisation of the injected cement
5. E. It works by stabilisation of the fractured bone by forming a chemical bond.
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QUESTION 2 OF 3

65.You are reviewing a 5-year-old boy with known spinal abnormality shown in Figure 14. He has received no treatment to date, but further imaging excludes associated abnormalities. You note progressive deformity over the previous 24 months with kyphosis measuring 60 degrees.
The most appropriate action at this point is:

Fig 8.7 Medium.jpeg

QUESTION ID: 3195

1. Anterior release and posterior instrumented fusion
2. Application of hyperextension brace
3. Insertion of conventional growing rods
4. Short segment posterior instrumented fusion/resection of abnormality
5. Shorten follow up interval with review in 2 months.
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QUESTION 3 OF 3

77.A 14-year-old girl is having posterior correction for scoliosis. Halfway through the procedure after screws are inserted and correction is done, there’s is loss of MEP(Motor Evoked potential) in both lower extremities with retained SSEP(Somatosensory evoked potential) .
The next step in the management of this patients is.

QUESTION ID: 3215

1. Check leads for loose connection.
2. Inform the entire team about loss of signals.
3. Intra op imaging of the implants, preferable O arm.
4. Raise BP and oxygenation.
5. Undo the correction.
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